...

1. English Communicative Code No. 101 CLASS - IX EXAMINATION SPECIFICATIONS

by user

on
Category: Documents
18

views

Report

Comments

Transcript

1. English Communicative Code No. 101 CLASS - IX EXAMINATION SPECIFICATIONS
1. English Communicative
Code No. 101
CLASS - IX
EXAMINATION SPECIFICATIONS
Division of Syllabus for Term II (October-March)
Summative Assessment II
30%
Section
Marks
Reading
20
Writing
25
Grammar
20
Literature
25
Formative Assessment
TOTAL
Total Weightage Assigned
20%
90 marks
50%
Note:
1.
The total weightage assigned to Summative Assessment (SA I&II) is 60%. The total weightage
assigned to Formative Assessment (FA1, 2, 3, &4) is 40%. Out of the 40% assigned to
Formative Assessment, 10% weightage is assigned to conversation skills (5% each in Term
I&II) and 10% weightage to the Reading Project (at least 1 Book is to be read in each term
and the Project will carry a weightage of 5% in each term).
2.
The Summative Assessment I and Summative Assessment II is for ninety marks. The weighatge
assigned to Summative Assessment I is 30% and the weightage assigned to Summative
Assessment II is 30%.
1
SECTION A: READING
20 Marks
Qs1-3 The reading section will have three unseen texts as shown below:
Text Number
Text 1
Text Type
Factual/Discursive/ Literary
Length
450 - 500 words
Marks
Type of Questions.
10 Marks Supply Type
(gap filling, sentence
completion, table
completion, word
attack questions,
reference and short
Text 2
Factual/Discursive/ Literary 200 - 300 words
5 Marks
answer questions)
---- do -----
Text 3
Factual/Discursive/ Literary 200 - 300 words.
5 Marks
Multiple Choice
In case of a poem,
it may be shorter
Questions
than 200 words.
The total length of the three passages will be between 850 - 1100 words. There will be at least 5
marks for assessing vocabulary. All questions on vocabulary will not be from the same passage.
Care should be taken to cover all the three text types, ie factual, discursive and literary while
selecting the passages. A poem may or may not be used as one of the three texts. Apart from a
poem, literary texts in prose may include excerpts from authentic literature such as short story,
autobiography, biography, travelogue, novel etc.
Whenever a poem or a literary text is used, the other two texts should be discursive and factual,
thus covering all the three text types.
SECTION B: WRITING (25 Marks)
The writing section comprises four writing tasks as indicated below.
Q4. A short composition of upto 50 words in the form of a Notice, Message or Diary Entry.
4 Marks
Q5. A composition of upto 100 words in the form of biographical sketch, data interpretation,
dialogue writing or description (people, objects or events)
2
6 Marks
Questions 4 & 5 will assess students' skill of expressing ideas in clear and grammatically correct English, presenting ideas coherently and concisely, writing a clear description, a clear account of events, expanding notes into a piece of writing, transcoding information from one form
to another or using a style appropriate for a notice, message or diary entry.
Q6. An extended writing task (length upto 120 words) in the form of a Formal/Informal Letter or
Email. The long piece of writing will assess the use of appropriate style, language, content and
expression.
7 Marks
Q.7 An extended writing task (length upto 150 words) in the form of an Article, Speech, Report or
Story.
8 Marks
Students' skills of expressing ideas in clear and grammatically correct English, planning,
organising and presenting ideas coherently by introducing, developing and concluding a topic,
comparing and contrasting ideas and arriving at a conclusion, presenting an argument with
supporting examples, using an appropriate style and format and expanding notes into longer
pieces of writing and creative expression of ideas will be assessed.
Qs 6 & 7 will make use of a visual/ verbal stimulus.
Important Note on Format and Word Limit:
l
Format will not carry any separate marks and in most cases, format will be given in the
question paper.
l
The word limit given is the suggested minimum word limit. Candidates must not be
penalised for writing more or less than the suggested word limit provided the topic is
covered adequately. Stress should be on content, expression, coherence and relevance of
the content presented.
SECTION C: GRAMMAR (20 Marks)
This section will assess Grammar items in context for 20 Marks. It will carry 5 questions of 4
marks each.
Questions 8 & 9 will have Multiple Choice Questions. The test types for MCQs include
the following:
l
Gap filling
l
Sentence completion
l
Dialogue completion
Questions 10,11 & 12 will be based on response supplied by students (supply type).
The test types will include the following:
3
l
Sentence reordering
l
Editing
l
Omission
l
Sentence transformation
Questions 8 to 12 will test grammar items which have been dealt with in class IX. Different
structures such as verb forms, sentence structure, connectors, determiners, pronouns, prepositions, clauses, phrases etc., can be tested through formative assessment over a period of time.
As far as the summative assessment is concerned, it will recycle grammar items learnt
over a period of time and will test them in context.
Tests types used will include gap-filling, cloze (gap filling exercise with blanks at regular intervals), sentence completion, recording word groups into sentences, editing, dialogue-completion and sentence-transformation.
The grammar syllabus will be sampled each year, with marks allotted for:
Verbs forms
Sentence structures
Other areas
Note: Jumbled words in reordering exercise to test syntax will involve sentences in a context. Each
sentence will be split into sense groups (not necessarily into single words) and jumbled up.
SECTION D: LITERATURE
(25 Marks)
Q13. will have the following arrangement:
13 A: An extract from poetry with three Multiple Choice Questions based on reference to
context.
3 Marks
13 B: An extract from a short story with three reference to context questions requiring the
students to supply the answers.
3 Marks
13 C: An extract from a play with three reference to context questions requiring the students to
supply the answers.
3 Marks
Q14.Four out of five short answer type questions based on prose, poetry and play of 2 marks
each. The questions will not test recall but will test inference and evaluation.
(30-40 words each)
4
8 Marks
Q15.One out of two long answer type questions to assess personal response to text (story, poem or
play) by going beyond the text/ poem/story or extract. Creativity, imagination and extrapolation
beyond the text and across two texts will also be assessed. (150 words)
8 Marks
Prescribed Books/ Materials
1. Interact in English - IX Main Course Book (revised edition)
2. Interact in English - IX Literature Reader (revised edition)
Published by CBSE
3. Interact in English - IX Workbook (revised edition)
Delhi-110092
Reading Section:
Reading for comprehension, critical evaluation, inference and analysis are skills to be tested
formatively as well as summatively. There will be no division of passages for this section, however, for reading purpose. The Interact in English Main Course Book will be read in two terms
i.e. Term I (April-September) and Term II (October-March).
Writing Section:
All types of short and extended writing tasks will be dealt with in both I and II Term Summative as
well as Formative Assessment. For the purpose of assessment all themes dealt with in the Main
Course Book and other themes of current interest may be used.
Note on assessing Writing Tasks.
Q4. Content
:
2 marks
Expression
:
2 marks (accuracy & fluency)
Total
:
4 marks
Upto one mark may be deducted for spelling, punctuation and grammar errors.
Q5. Content
:
3 marks
Fluency
:
2 marks
Accuracy
:
1 mark
Total
:
6 marks
Upto one mark may be deducted for spelling, punctuation and grammar errors.
Q6. Content
:
3 marks
Accuracy
:
2 marks
Fluency
:
2 marks
Total
:
7 marks
5
Upto two marks may be deducted for spelling, punctuation and grammar errors.
Q7. Content
:
4 marks
Accuracy
:
2 marks
Fluency
:
2 marks
Total
:
8 marks
Upto two marks may be deducted for spelling, punctuation and grammar errors.
Though marks have been allotted specifically for content, they should not be awarded in a mechanical manner. For instance, if a student has merely mentioned the value points (content) as
per the marking scheme, the examiner should assess whether the content has been expressed/
communicated in a coherent and cohesive manner. It means content and expression are
perceived as interlinked aspects of writing.
Similarly in all the writing tasks credit should be given to creativity in the realm of ideas and
language use. What it means for the examiner is that students who think differently and are able
to use the language with felicity in terms of structures as well as vocabulary should be given due
weightage. This need not necessarily be seen as leaning towards subjectivity in marking.
A proper balance of content, expression (accuracy, fluency, cohesion and coherence)
and creativity would encourage students to aim for higher standards in written communication.
Errors in spelling, punctuation and grammar should be penalised to the extent of marks allotted
for accuracy.(i.e. the penalty should not exceed 2 marks).
Grammar:
Grammar items mentioned in the syllabus will be taught and assessed summatively as well as
formatively over a period of time. There will be no division of syllabus for Grammar in the
summative and formative assessments for the terms. However a suggested split - up of the
Work Book for the two terms is given to help teachers in planning their classroom teaching.
6
CLASS IX- COMMUNICATIVE
Syllabus for the Two Terms
S. No. Text Books
First Term
(April - September)
Second Term
(October - March)
FA 1 10 FA 2 10 SA I 30 FA 3 10 FA 4 10 SA II 30
Literature Reader
PROSE
1.How I Taught My Grandmother to Read
4
4
2. A Dog Named Duke
4
4
3. The Man Who Knew too Much
4
4
4. Keeping it from Harold
4
4
5. Best Seller
4
4
POETRY
1. The Brook
4
4
2. The Road Not Taken
4
4
3. The Solitary Reaper
4
4
4. Lord Ullin's Daughter
4
4
5. The Seven Ages
4
4
6. Oh, I Wish I'd Looked After Me Teeth
4
4
7. Song of the Rain
4
4
4
4
DRAMA
1. Villa for Sale
4
4
2. The Bishop's Candlesticks
Main Course Book
1. People
4
4
2. Adventure
4
4
3. Environment
4
4
4.The Class IX Radio and Video Show
4
4
7
5. Mystery
4
4
6. Children
4
4
7. Sports and Games
4
4
WORK BOOK* - Suggested Break-up of Units for the Purpose of Classroom Teaching
only - NOT FOR TESTING (see the note below)
Term I
1. Verb Forms
2. Determiners
3. Future Time Reference
4. Modals
Term II
5. Connectors
6. The Passive
7. Reported Speech
8. Prepositions
NOTE ON WORKBOOK
The suggested split up of the units of the Workbook reflects a distribution for the purpose of
classroom teaching only. Since grammar and usage is not to be tested directly, but in an
integrated manner, the split up as shown above will not restrict questions in the grammar section of SA I and SA II question papers to the specific units shown in the split up
of Workbook units. Grammar will be tested by recycling grammar items learnt over a period
of time in a comprehensive manner. Teachers may adapt this suggested distribution for classroom teaching making modifications according to their specific needs. Similarly Formative
Assessment of grammar items may also be carried out in an integrated manner along with the
skills of Reading, Writing, Speaking and Listening as well as Literature.
Note:
1.
Formative Assessment is assessment 'for' learning. Thus schools may adapt the above
break-up as per their convenience.
2.
All activities related to Formative Assessment such as language games, quizzes, projects, role
plays, dramatization, script writing etc must be done as 'in class' and 'in school' activities. In
case, a field survey or visit is taken up it must be under the direct supervision of the teacher.
8
SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT- II
SAMPLE PAPER
CLASS IX
ENGLISH COMMUNICATIVE
Maximum marks: 90
Time-3 hours
The question paper is divided into four sections.
Section A
:
Reading Comprehension
20 marks
Section B
:
Writing
25 marks
Section C
:
Grammar
20 marks
Section D
:
Literature
25 marks
SECTION A
(READING - 20 MARKS)
Q1. Read the following passage carefully:
l
(10 marks)
Our house is filled with photos. They cover the walls of my kitchen, dining room and den. I see
our family's entire history, starting with my wedding, continuing through the births of both sons,
buying a home, family gatherings and vacations. When my sons were little, they loved to pose.
They waved, danced, climbed trees, batted balls, hung upside down from the jungle gym and
did anything for a picture. But when they reached adolescence, picture-taking changed into
something they barely tolerated. Their bodies were growing at haphazard speeds. Reluctantly they stood with us or with their grandparents at birthday celebrations and smiled weakly
at the camera for as short a time as possible.
l
I am the chronicler of our photographs. I select those to be framed and arrange the others in
albums. The process is addictive, and as the shelves that hold our albums become fuller and
fuller, I wonder what will become of them. Will anyone look at these photographs in future
years? If my sons look at them, what will they think of us and of themselves? One bright afternoon, I took some photographs of my father with my husband as they fished in a lake near our
vacation house. As my sons and I sat on the shore and watched them row away, I picked the
camera up and photographed the beautiful lake surrounded by green trees. The two men I
loved gradually grew smaller until all I could see were my father's red shirt, and the tan and
blue caps on their heads.
9
l
My father died a week later, and suddenly those photos became priceless to me. I wept when
I pasted them in our album. I wept again afterwards when I saw my younger son looking at
them. It was a few days before he went away to college. He had taken all our albums down
from the bookshelves in the den and spread them out on the carpet. It had been a very long
time since I had seen him doing this. Once he stopped posing for pictures, he seemed to lose
interest in looking at them. But now he was on the verge of leaving home. This was his special
time to look ahead and look back. I stood for a moment in the hall by the den, and then tiptoed
away. I didn't take a photo of my son that afternoon, but I will remember how he looked for as
long as I live. Some pictures, I learned, don't have to be taken with a camera.
1. Fill in the summary using one word only.
(1x4= 4 marks)
The author was (a) _____________________________ about taking photographs and
framing them. But she always (b) _____________________________ whether her sons would
ever look at them. She was full of (c) _____________________________ when she pasted
the pictures of her father's last days in the album. She learnt that some pictures always (d)
_____________________________ in one's mind without a camera.
2. Two examples that show that the author's sons were averse to taking photographs are:
(lx2=2 marks)
(a) _______________________
(b) _______________________
3. Give words that mean the same as
(1x4= 4 marks)
1. not organized or planned (para 1)
2. one who records events in order (para 2)
3. very valuable (para 3) priceless
4. continued engagement with an activity (para 2)
Q2. Read the following passage carefully.
(5 marks)
1. Papaya is the healthiest fruit with a list of properties that is long and exhaustive. Papaya
favours digestion as well as cures skin irritation and sun burns. You can munch on it as a
salad, have it cooked or boiled or just drink it up as milkshake or juice. The most important of
these virtues is the protein-digesting enzyme in the milky juice or latex. The enzyme is similar
to pepsin in its digestive action and is said to be so powerful that it can digest 200 times its
own weight in protein. It assists the body in assimilating the maximum nutritional value from
food to provide energy and body-building materials.
10
2. Papain in raw papaya makes up for the deficiency of gastric juice and fights excess of unhealthy mucus in the stomach, dyspepsia and intestinal irritation. The ripe fruit, if eaten regularly corrects habitual constipation, bleeding piles and chronic diarhoea. The juice of the papaya seeds also assists in the above-mentioned ailments.
3. The juice, used as a cosmetic, removes freckles or brown spots due to exposure to sunlight
and makes the skin smooth and delicate. A paste of papaya seeds is applied in skin diseases like those caused by ringworm. The black seeds of the papaya are highly beneficial in
the treatment of cirrhosis of the liver caused by alcoholism, malnutrition, etc. A tablespoonful
of its juice, combined with a hint of fresh lime juice, should be consumed once or twice daily
for a month. The fresh juice of raw papaya mixed with honey can be applied over inflamed
tonsils, for diphtheria and other throat disorders. It dissolves the membrane and prevents
infection from spreading.
Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate options from the ones
given below:
(a) One of the most important virtues of pepsin is that:
(i) it is found in papaya.
(ii) it can digest large quantities of protein.
(iii) it cures constipation.
(iv) it can treat a damaged liver.
(b) Intestinal irritation can be overcome by:
(i) eating ripe papaya salad.
(ii) drinking papaya juice.
(iii) eating raw papaya.
(iv) chewing the seeds of the fruit.
(c) Throat disorders can be cured if:
(i)one applies honey and the juice of a raw papaya on it.
(ii) one drinks the juice of a raw papaya.
(iii) one eats ripe papaya mixed with honey.
(iv) one drinks the juice of ripe papaya with honey.
11
(d) 'The juice can be used as a cosmetic' means:
(i) the juice has medicinal properties.
(ii) the juice can be used to rectify physical defects.
(iii) the juice can be used to treat internal diseases.
(iv) the juice can be used to make the skin look more attractive
(e) The fact that papaya is a versatile fruit is evident from:
(i) the fact that it can be drunk as a milkshake.
(ii) the fact that it can be eaten as a salad, cooked, boiled or just drunk.
(iii) the fact that its seeds can be applied on the skin.
(iv) the fact that it can be eaten, drunk and also used externally.
Q3.Read the given poem carefully:
(5 marks)
The Leader
Patient and steady with all he must bear,
Ready to meet every challenge with care,
Easy in manner, yet solid as steel,
Strong in his faith, refreshingly real,
Isn't afraid to propose what is bold,
Doesn't conform to the usual mould,
Eyes that have foresight, for hindsight won't do,
Never backs down when he sees what is true,
Tells it all straight, and means it all too.
Going forward and knowing he's right,
Even when doubted for why he would fight,
Over and over he makes his case clear
Reaching to touch the ones who won't hear.
Growing in strength, he won't be unnerved,
12
Ever assuring he'll stand by his word.
Wanting the world to join his firm stand,
Bracing for war, but praying for peace,
Using his power so evil will cease:
So much a leader and worthy of trust,
Here stands a man who will do what he must.
-Anonymous
On the basis of your reading of the above poem, answer the following questions by choosing the correct option from those given below:
1.
This poem is about ……………………………………
a. the qualities a leader should possess
b. a person who has been a good leader
c. wha t leaders used to be like
d. a present day leader
2.
'Doesn't conform to the usual mould' suggests the person being described ………..
a. doesn't look like others
b. has qualities that are different
c. doesn't mix up with people
d. breaks rules laid down by society
3.
The leader would fight war bravely, ………………
a. because he wants to prove his valour
b. because he wants to kill his enemy
c. and turn out victorious
d. but want peace
13
4.
‘Using his power so evil will cease’:. Here ‘cease’ means………………..
a. begin
b. become strong
c. come to an end
d. rule over everyone
5.
A true leader is a man who possesses………………………………..
a. physical strength and daredevilry
b. courage and conviction
c. religious beliefs and faith
d. strength and faith
14
SECTION B
(WRITING-25 MARKS)
Q4. Ashwani/ Aastha Sharma, in charge of the NSS Club of St. Andrew's School, Kashipur,
is asked to write a notice about a fair being organised by the club to collect articles &
money for people affected by floods in Uttaranchal. The notice will be put up for
students on the school notice board. Write the notice in around 40 words, including
relevant details such as purpose of fair; kind of stalls-games, food etc; contributions
accepted; fair timing etc. in your notice so that students may contribute generously.
Do not give extra information. Put the notice in a box.
(4 marks)
Q5. Rising violence among youth is a cause for concern. A recent survey listed the reasons for this trend. Study the following graph showing causes for the growing violence against others and against self. Write a paragraph based on the available data in
80-100 words.
(6 marks)
l
growing needs
l
peer miralry
l
teenage problems
l
pressures
Q6. Last year, during your vacation, you went on an adventure camp that included activities like trekking, rafting, rock-climbing etc. Write an e-mail to your friend, describing
your activities and telling him/her to join you when you go again this year, in about 150
words.
(7 marks)
Q7. Manisha Jaiswal is a 15-year-old with an 8-year-old brother, Prabhat. Her mother, who
really pampers Prabhat, insists Manisha take him along wherever she goes. Today,
Prabhat accompanied Manisha to her friend, Nidhi's birthday party, and to her embarrassment, misbehaved there. He spilt the cold drink on the sofa and threw a tantrum
because he wanted to pull down the balloons.
As Manisha, using ideas from the Unit ‘Childhood’ of your Main Course Book and your
own ideas, write a the diary entry recalling the events at the birthday party. (8 marks)
15
SECTION C
(GRAMMAR-20 MARKS)
Q8. In the passage given below, some words are missing. Choose the correct word from
the given options to complete the passage meaningfully.
(½x8=4 marks)
The first test tube baby turtle (a) ___________ born last month in California. The story began
(b) _________ a broken turtle egg (c) _________ on the seashore. Scientists (d) __________
to work carefully bringing up (e) ___________ baby turtle which has now (f) ___________. this
winter the turtle (g). ___________ be returned (h) ___________ the sea.
(a) (i) was born
(ii)
were born
(iii)
is born
(iv)
are born
(b) (i) where
(ii)
which
(iii)
when
(iv)
who
(c) (i) is find
(ii)
was found
(iii)
are finding
(iv)
found
(d) (i) get
(ii)
are getting
(iii)
gets
(iv)
have got
(e) (i) a
(ii)
an
(iii)
are
(iv)
the
(f) (i) have grown
(ii)
is grown
(iii)
grown
(iv)
are grown
(g) (i) might
(ii)
could
(iii)
must
(iv)
would
(h) (i) to
(ii)
at
(iii)
in
(iv)
into
Q9. Using these notes complete the paragraph describing the famous Indian author R.K.
Narayan by choosing from the given options.
(1 × 4 = 4 marks)
R. K. Narayan
l
Birth-October 10, 1906, Chennai
l
Occupation-novelist, short-story writer
l
Father-headmaster
l
Brother-famous cartoonist, R.K. Laxman
l
Married-Rajam in 1939
l
Notable work(s)-Swami and Friends
l
Died-May 13, 2001 (aged 94)
The famous novelist and short-story writer R.K. Narayan (a) .......................................... His father
(b) ............................................... . His brother (c) .............................................. R.K. Laxman. In 1939
he married Rajam. One of (d) ........................................................... Swami and Friends. He died
on May 13, 2001 at the ripe age of ninety four.
16
(a) (i) was born in Chennai on October 10, 1906
(ii) born at Chennai on October 10, 1906
(iii) were born in Chennai on October 10, 1906
(iv) was born at Chennai in October 10, 1906
(b) (i) was a Headmaster
(iii) was the Headmaster
(c) (i) is a famous cartoonist
(iii) was the famous cartoonist
(d) (i) his notable work is
(iii) his notable works is
(ii)
was Headmaster
(iv)
is a Headmaster
(ii)
is the famous cartoonist
(iv)
was famous cartoonist
(ii)
his notable works are
(iv)
his notable work is
Q10.Look at the words and phrases below. Rearrange them to form meaningful sentences
as shown.
(1x4=4 marks)
streets /during/ can see/ slogans/ elections,/ supporters/ political parties/ the/ shouting /of/ in /
we.
During elections, we can see supporters of political parties shouting slogans in the streets.
a.
on foot/ the/ greeting/ candidates/ walk/ the/ even / people.
b.
pportunity/ they/ the/ of / catch/ shaking hands/ anyone/ meet/ they/ with.
c.
their problems/ people/ their/ assure/ that \ they \ will \ supporters.
d.
to exercise/ votes / they/ candidates/ urge/them/ their/ in favour of their.
Q11. Read the conversation given below and complete the following passage by choosing
the correct option.
(4 marks)
Detective: What were you doing yesterday between 10-10.30 pm?
Bharat : I was walking my dog in the park.
Detective: Did you meet anyone in the park?
Bharat : I saw two men sitting on a bench.
The detective asked Bharat (a) ___________________________________. Manoj replied
that (b) _______________________________________. The detective then asked Bharat
(c) ___________________________________________ to which Bharat replied that
(d) ______________________________________________________________________.
Q12.The following passage has not been edited. There is one error in each line. Write the
incorrect word and the correction against the correct blank number in your answer
sheet. The first one has been done for you as an example.
(8x ½ = 4 marks)
17
Incorrect
The passenger were waiting at
e.g. passenger
Correct
passengers
the station when five policemen rushing
(a)
___________
____________
into difference compartments of a
(b)
___________
____________
train. After sometimes one of them
(c)
___________
____________
comes out with two young men
(d)
___________
____________
and soon another policeman joined her.
(e)
___________
____________
The men which had been arrested
(f)
___________
____________
was been caught for a theft.
(g)
___________
____________
They had stealed two cars
(h)
___________
____________
SECTION - D
(LITERATURE 25 MARKS)
Q13. A. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing
the correct alternative.
(3 marks)
I am beautiful pearls, plucked from the
Crown of Ishtar by the daughter of Dawn
To embellish the gardens.
1. What is being referred to as 'pearls' in the above lines?
a.
rain drops
b.
flowers
c.
buds
d.
silver threads
2. Who is Ishtar?
a.
Goddess of Dawn
b.
Goddess of Flowers
c.
Daughter of Dawn
d.
Goddess of Fertility,
18
3. The two poetic devices used in the above lines are _______________
a.
personification and allusion
b.
allusion and alliteration
c.
personification and metaphor
d.
simile and alliteration
Q13. B. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. (3 marks)
"Good-luck to you, Trevelyan," I said. "And may you get the petunias for your princess!"
a. Who is being called Trevelyan? Why does he use this name?
b. What is the speaker's tone at this time?
c. Who is the princess?
Q13. C. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. (3 marks)
'Oh, Mon Dieu! It is hopeless, hopeless. We shall have nothing left. His estate is sold, his savings have gone. His furniture, everything. Were it not for my little dot we should starve! And now
my beautiful-beautiful (sob) saltcellars. Ah, it is too much, too much.'
(a) Who speaks these lines? Who is she speaking about?
(1)
(b) Why does the speaker say they will have nothing left?
(1)
(c) What does 'dot' mean?
(1)
Q14. Answer any four of the following questions.
(2 x 4=8 marks)
(a) In what sense are men and women merely players on the stage of life?
(b) ‘Corporal Turnbull was a young man, but he was not a man to be trifled with’.
Comment.
(c) “And another thing I call rotten is you having kept it from me all this time that you were 'Young
Porky,' pa”. Bring out the irony in the above statement.
(d) What did the poet do in earlier days that has led to tooth decay?
(e) In what way is Rain's coming to earth pleasure mixed with sorrow?
Q15.Compare and contrast the characters of John Pescud and the narrator in "The Best
Seller."
(8 marks)
Or
Write an autobiography of rain.
19
MARKING SCHEME
SECTION-A
READING - 20 MARKS
Q1. Objective : To identify and understand main parts of the text.
Marking : 10 marks : (1 mark for each correct answer)
Answers
1.
(a) keen / crazy
(b) wondered / speculated
(c) tears/sorrow/emotions/remorse
(d) remain/exist.
2.
(a) They posed for photographs reluctantly / they smiled weakly at the camera/ they posed for
photographs for shortest possible time (any two)
3.
1. haphazard
2. chronicler
3. priceless
4. addictive
Papaya
Q 2. Objective : To identify and understand main parts of the text.
Marking : 5 marks : (1 mark for each correct answer)
Answers
(a) (ii) it can digest large quantities of protein.
(b) (iii) eating raw papaya.
(c) (i) one applies honey and the juice of a raw papaya on it.
(d) (iv) the juice can be used to make the skin look more attractive.
(e) (v) the fact that it can be eaten, drunk and also used externally.
20
The Leader
Q3. Objective : To identify and understand main parts of the text.
Marking : 5 marks : (1 mark for each correct answer)
Answers:
1. a. the qualities a leader should possess
2. b. has qualities that are different
3. d. but want peace
4. c. come to an end
5. b. courage and conviction
SECTION B
(WRITING -25 MARKS)
Q4. Objectives: To use an appropriate style and format to write a notice and to
decode information from one text form to another.
(4 marks)
Content:
Value points
2 marks
a.
Name of school, the word NOTICE, subject & date
b.
Writer's name & designation
c.
Purpose of fair with venue- help distressed people
d.
Date & Trimings
e.
Stalls - games, food,...
f.
food articles, medicines, money, clothes and shoes - help - hill people of Uttaranchal
Expression
2 marks
Q5. Objectives: To use an appropriate style and format to write a paragraph and to
decode information from one text form to another.
Content
(6 marks)
3 marks
Suggested Value points:
21
a. Reference to graph
b. Interpretation of data
c. Suggestions
Fluency
2 marks
Accuracy
1 mark
Q6. Marking: Marking should be in accordance with the writing assessment scale.
(Content - 3
Fluency - 2
Accuracy - 2 )
Under content, credit should be given for the candidate's creativity in presenting his/her own
ideas. However, some of the following points may be included. Any other relevant point can
be accepted.
(7 marks)
Suggested Value points:
a. Reference to adventure camp-when/where etc.
b. Activities and what you learnt/ gained
c. How you enjoyed them suggestion to join this year
Q7. Objective : To plan, organize and present ideas coherently. To write in the format of
a diary entry.
Marking
: Marking should be in accordance with the writing assessment scale.
(Content-4
Fluency-2
Accuracy - 2 )
(8 marks)
Under content, credit should be given for the candidate's creativity in presenting his/her own
ideas. However, some of the following points may be included. Any other relevant point can
be accepted.
Suggested Value Points:
-
parents pampering
-
todays incident - Prabhat
-
misbehaviour
-
how I felt - harassed and frustrated
-
what I should do/what any parents should do.
-
(accept any other relevant point)
22
SECTION C
(GRAMMAR-20 MARKS)
Q 8.
OMISSION - TEST TUBE TURTLE
TOTAL MARKS 4
Objective : To use grammatical items accurately and appropriately
Marking : ½ mark to be awarded to each correct answer.
Q9.
(a) (i)
was born
(b) (iii)
when
(c) (ii)
was found
(d) (iv)
have got
(e) (iv)
the
(f)
has grown
(iii)
(g) (iii)
must
(h) (i)
to
EXPANDING NOTES
TOTAL MARKS 4
Objective: To expand the given notes correctly
Marking :1 mark for each correct answer
(a) (i) was born in Chennai on October 10, 1906
(b) (i) was a Headmaster
(c) (ii) is the famous cartoonist
(d) (iii) his notable works is
Q10. REARRANGING WORDS
TOTAL MARKS 4
Objective : To rearrange jumbled words into grammatically correct sentences .
Marking
: 1 mark for each correct answer
a.
Even the candidates walk on foot greeting the people.
b.
They catch the opportunity of shaking hands with anyone they meet.
c.
Their supporters assure the people that they will solve their problems.
d.
They urge them to exercise their votes in favour of their candidates.
23
Q11. REPORTED SPEECH
TOTAL MARKS 4
Objective : To complete the given passage with grammatically correct sentences
by changing narration.
Marking : 1 mark for each correct answer
(a)
what he had been doing the previous day between 10-10 30 pm
(b)
he had been walking his dog in the park.
(c)
if he had met anyone in the park.
(d)
he had seen two men sitting on a bench.
Q12. EDITING
TOTAL MARKS 4
Objective
:
To use grammatical items accurately and appropriately
Marking
:
½ mark to be awarded to each correct answer.
Incorrect
Correct
(a)
rushing
rushed
(b)
difference
different
(c)
sometimes
sometime
(d)
comes
came
(e)
her
him
(f)
which
who
(g)
was
had
(h)
stealed
stolen
24
SECTION - D
(LITERATURE 25 MARKS)
Q13 A. Song of The Rain
1.
a.
rain drops
2.
d.
Goddess of Fertility,
3.
a.
personification and allusion
Q13 B. a.
(3x1= 3 marks)
Pescud. Trevelyan is a name found in romantic novels.
b.
mocking
c.
Jessie
Q13 C.
(3x1= 3 marks)
(3x1= 3 marks)
'Oh, Mon Dieu! It is hopeless, hopeless. We shall have nothing left. His estate is sold, his savings have gone. His furniture, everything. Were it not for my little dot we should starve! And now
my beautiful-beautiful (sob) saltcellars. Ah, it is too much, too much.'
(a) Persome says this about her brother, the Bishop.
(b) The Bishop sells his belongings to give money to any one who comes to him for help. He
has given away his savings and has sold his estate and even his furniture.
(c) 'Dot' means the dowry that was given to her when she got married.
Q14.
(2x4= 8 marks)
(a) At birth they enter the stage and on their death they leave it. They play seven roles on the
stage depending upon their age. Each age has certain special characteristics that man
follows.
(b) Was tough; knew a lot about army and ammunition
(c) Mr and Mrs Bramble wanted to protect Harold from the knowledge that his father was a
professional wrestler; felt it would hurt his sensibilities; Harold is proud of it when he learns
of it.
(d) Did not take care of teeth; ate sweets/ sticky food
(e) Rain comes to earth bringing joy. It causes fields and gardens to bloom. This makes it
happy but it is saddened by memories of the heavens it left to come to earth.
25
Q15.
Value Points
(8 marks)
Pescud
salesman/go-getter
pretentious/ conceited
a bully
critical/ opinionated
good conversationalist
die-hard romantic
sentimental/persistent
Narrator
keen observer
subtly sarcastic
critical
perceptive
OR
Value Point
a.
born out of the sea
b.
travels in clouds
c.
comes down to soothe parched fields and valleys
d.
causes flowers to bloom
e.
flows back to the sea
26
Fly UP